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Gideon the empiricist?

Posted by: Piper ( Australia Day=Invasion Day, Aus ) on January 26, 19100 at 10:25:36:

In Reply to: Piper the logical positivist? posted by Gideon Hallett on January 24, 19100 at 00:54:36:

Induction and deduction are both principles which cannot be proved or disproved by experience. The distinction to be drawn between the two is that the former supplies knowledge in the form of something being probably true or false whereas the latter supplies knowledge that is necessarily true or false. Strictly speaking (traditionally) both are logical principles.

The principles of logic (both inductive and deductive) may well be derived from generalisation in particular instances. However the truth of such principles is, to quote Russell "impossible to doubt", and so obvious as to seem "almost trivial". Logical principles are known to us and cannot be proved by experience as all proof presupposes them. We accept them as self-evident. They are a priori. (i do not think this inconsistent with Godel)

The starting point of my argument against you Gideon was an assertion on your part that a christian could not produce a ‘logical’ argument. Such an argument is manifestly incorrect as a christian CAN use principles of logic in argument. The principles of logic are not solely the realm of science, they are the ‘rules of thought’. It is i think quite reasonable for a christian to say that they inductively know something about God. The question in such a case is whether it is rational to make such an inference. Alternatively they can argue with deductive logic on the basis of an unproveable text. You may disagree with their premesis, but that does not mean that the argument is ‘illogical’ or ‘alogical’.

Cheers

NB.

i) I take it that not all deductive premesis can be traced back to induction as i consider sensation not to be inductive, but rather certain experience.

ii) As regards my assertion that ‘induction had its (articulated) origins in the writings of Bacon and descarte’, i did not mean to suggest that Leucippus and Democritus did not Use induction, merely that it was formalised as scientific method by those writers in the Age of Enlightenment. Perhaps i am wrong, but i am not aware of those ancient writers using a precise methodology.



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