: : DDN: A little stray from the course: If Jesus was Jewish why does he have a Spanish name? Think about it. :
: Because He was bilingual?
: Actually, Jesus is not Spanish. Think about it more. The name Jesus means "Savior." Fits him, not the Spanish.
In Aramaic, "Jesus" means savior, but the person to whom it most commonly refers probably didn't call himself that (although there is some suggestion that he spoke Aramaic). The name appears to be a later invention, and it means "savior" because of its association with the man, rather than the other way around. The fellow you're refering to most likely called himself Yeshvah ben Yusef, (Joshuah, son of Joseph) rather than Jesus. And to save you a little bit of time and mental energy, don't bother telling me he wasn't the son of Joseph, I've heard that story, and I'm pretty sure that Mattthew backs me up on this. Either Jesus was God's son, OR he was of the house of David (and therefore "king") since royalty descended (in that culture) patrilineally. That's why the patriline of Joseph is in Matthew in the first place, to demonstrate Jesus' (Earthly) royalty. And, yes, I know it's a metaphor, so don't bother telling me that either.
None.
